So i was watching the video where the mrs couldn't price the question; then i thought: what if she *did*, however in method that turn the tables, leaving the questioner flabbergasted. Here I am, in ~ work, thinking about the many convoluted way to deal with this problem. Here's what I come up with:

Let x be the time in hours it takes to go 80 miles. Collection v(t) = 80.

You are watching: If you are going 80 mph how long

∫v(t)dt = 80 native 0 come x

Then 80x - 80(0) = 80

80x = 80

x = 1 hour

How would you price this question, if you want to mess through that person?

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level 1

· 6y

How lengthy does it take to go 80 miles if you're going 80mph? The price is simple.

80 miles is the about fifty percent the broad of Florida. Florida is whereby Disney human being is. Disney civilization is wherein Mickey mouse lives. Mickey computer mouse is in numerous movies. Movies room made in Hollywood, California. California is whereby the gold rush happened. Often, gold rushers would find a single gold nugget. Obviously yellow is great because it has actually a monetary value. We also know the time is money. Just how much money is one gold nugget worth? One hour. And there is her answer.

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level 1

· 6y

New User

If ns am walking 80 miles per hour, it would certainly take me 10 minutes to walk 80 miles.

Since i am no going 80 miles per hour, the explain is vacuously true.

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level 2

· 6y

Logician

Logic major approves this statement.

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level 2

· 6y

I concur.

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level 2

· 6y

=> ftw

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level 1

· 6y

You might expand her answer by re-deriving the whole integral calculus.

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level 2

· 6y

UK Maths&Compsci

You could expand the by structure up the interpretations of actual numbers from ZFC. *Then* usage those come re-derrive integral calculus.

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level 1

· 6y

We recognize that there are 60 minute in an hour. If we're traveling at a rate of 80 mph, then that way we're traveling at 80/60 = 8/6 = 4/3 miles per minute. ~ one minute we take trip 4/3 miles. After two minutes we take trip 4/3 + 4/3 miles. ~ 3 minutes we travel 4/3 + 4/3 + 4/3 miles. Thus after one hour (sixty minutes) we travel Σ(4/3)i wherein i goes from 1 to 60. For this reason after one hour, we take trip 4/3 * 60 = 240/3 = 80 miles.

To more convolute her answer, justification why it's a constant speed. You feeling no force, therefore F = 0. You have mass, so by Newton's 2nd law a = 0. Because a = 0, v = constant.

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level 2

· 6y

Thus after ~ one hour (sixty minutes) we travel Σ(4/3)i wherein i goes from 1 to 60.

Careful. Don't incorporate the index in the summand in this case.

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level 1

Comment turned off by user · 6y

level 2

· 6y

A relativity method to a difficulty is always refreshing and welcomed.

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level 1

· 6y

6.678 * 1046 planck times.

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level 1

· 6y

How about I shot to include technicalities to make her right.

My physics teacher drilled right into our heads the velocities space all relative.

Assumptions made: She reply 10 minutes. A aircraft overhead travels at 480 miles every hour.

Maybe she ignored 80 mi/hr because they whereby not moving. They space a solved reference suggest to something else. She answered let's say 10 minutes because her reference allude was a aircraft overhead. The airplane being the only thing, maybe, in her view that to be moving. If the airplane was the reference suggest to them, they were relocating about, let's say, 480 mph away from it. Again that was through the aircraft as the recommendation point. Of course the velocity 480mph would certainly be an unfavorable because she is moving away indigenous it together she is idle. Together a result, she normalized the velocity to offer her the speed. The speed, currently normalized, is simply positive 480 mph. At the speed, girlfriend hit 80 miles in 10 minutes.

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In all, instances, she to be right. The girl questioning her never specified a allude of reference. She only implied one.